Free CAPM® Exam Prep Practice Test12602 Tests taken

Change the way you learn with the free CAPM practice test. The CAPM practice questions are simulations of the real deal. You can take this CAPM mock test many times and gauge where you stand after each module you learn. Try it today! Change the way you learn with the CAPM exam prep. These CAPM exam questions are representative of the real certification exam and can be taken multiple times to help you map your progress. Use this CAPM practice test to identify which areas of project management you are weak in and work on strengthening them. Professionals who want to test themselves on core project management philosophies will enjoy this mock test. Take the CAPM questions today and improve your chances of becoming a CAPM certified professional.

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  • FREE test and can be attempted multiple times.
  • 180 Minutes
  • 150 Multiple Choice Questions
  • You can pause the test in between and you are allowed to re-take the test later.
1. The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives, measuring their achievement, and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the measurement is called:
2. During the full life cycle of the project, a plot of the project's expected expenditures will usually follow a characteristic S curve. This indicates that:
3. In which project lifecycle phase would you expect to have the greatest influence on overall project cost?
4. Requirement is -
5. TQM is -
6. Of the following, which describes Management Information Systems?
7. The type of planning that is equated with more specific data or is detailed in nature is called:
8. What are the different types of costs in Microsoft Project?
9. What is the name of PMI's Organization maturity model for project management?
10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Project?
11. A group of related projects that are managed in a coordinated way that usually includes an element of ongoing activity is called a:
12. Project constraint could be on -
13. Which of the following is NOT true about Project Management Office (PMO)?
14. Projects require project management while operations require business process management or operations management. Projects can intersect with operations at various points during the product lifecycle. Which of the following is not a stage to represent this?
15. Enterprise environmental factors refer to both internal and external environmental factor that surround or influence a project's success. Of the following, which is NOT an enterprise environmental factor :
16. A person who is involved in or may be affected by the activities or anyone who has something to gain or lose by the activity of the project is called a:
17. Large projects may be divided into smaller, more manageable components known as,
18. A manager who manages a group of related projects is called a -
19. Which of the following activity is conducted last as part of closing process group
20. In the PMBOK, each process is broken into -
21. A stakeholder has the greatest ability to influence a project during -
22. A Project Manager should support making changes during Execution -
23. Conducting Lessons Learned is a critical part of -
24. Of the following, which is not a process from the Planning Process Group?
25. The Change Management Plan should be included in which of the following?
26. Who is a Project Initiator?
27. Who does the Project Integration?
28. Which of the following is true about Project Plan ?
29. Which of the following statements is MOST True?
30. Which of the following may NOT be included in the Project Management Plan?
31. All of the following are TRUE except,
32. The project is characterized by frequent changes to the project charter. Authorizing project charter changes should typically be the responsibility of __________
33. Which of the following defines a Defect repair?
34. Facilitating a change to the project schedule involves each of the following, except,
35. Which of the following is true?
36. A budget change is requested and approved during the execution/control phase of the project. What is your MOST appropriate action following approval?
37. Which is NOT an output from the 'Direct and Manage Project Execution' process?
38. Who performs and documents lessons learned?
39. Which is a tool and technique for the process 'Perform Integrated Change Control' process?
40. Which of the following is NOT a configuration management activity included in the integrated change control process?
41. Any numbering system that is used to monitor project costs by category such as labor, supplies, or materials, for example, is called:
42. An example of 'Validate Scope' process is :
43. A project manager is creating a work breakdown structure for her project. In the breakdown structure, the lowest level of the breakdown for the project manager is called the:
44. A project manager is reviewing the scope of the project and the scope baseline of the project. Which of the following does it include?
45. A project manager is reviewing the work breakdown structure for her project. The WBS for the project represents:
46. When decomposing project work during WBS creation, which of the following activities is not part of the process :
47. In a very large project having a budget of $5 million and a project team of over one hundred persons, the project manager constructs a work breakdown structure. The project manager will do the WBS to the detail level of which of the following?
48. The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is:
49. Which of the following is NOT a tool and technique for the 'Define Scope' process?
50. Which of the following are the Requirement workshops that are focused sessions that bring key cross functional stakeholders together to define product requirements?
51. The method of reaching a group decision where the largest block in a group decides even if a majority is not achieved is known as :
52. Job Shadowing
53. Which of the following may NOT be included in the Project Scope Statement?
54. Which of the following are not INPUT to the 'Validate Scope' process?
55. What is Decomposition?
56. Which is the tool and technique for the 'Control Scope' process?
57. You are the project manager of a project that is in its early phase. You need to estimate the duration of implementing the project. Based on your experience with similar past projects, you estimate a 6-month implementation time. What is this type of estimation technique called?
58. An activity has an Early start(ES) of day 5, a Late Start (LS) of day 15, an Early Finish (EF) of day 8 and Late Finish(LF) of day 18. This activity :
59. The difference between actual time and planned time is known as,
60. If a project has 5 days of project float and 10 days of total float, what will happen if the early start date is delayed 3 days, how will this impact the project completion date:
61. The project manager decided to improve the predicted completion date for the project by doing in parallel several of the activities that were scheduled to be done in sequence. This is called:
62. The original schedule (for a project, a work package, or an activity), plus or minus approved changes, is called:
63. Resource leveling will generally:
64. A task was scheduled to use two persons, full time, and take two weeks to complete. Instead, the project manager was only able to assign one person to this task. At the end of two weeks, the person assigned to the task was 75% complete. What is the cost performance index?
65. Which of the following is considered to be a simulation technique?
66. In the first attempt in resource leveling the project schedule, what would you expect to occur?
67. A project manager would like to manage his project in such a way that he will be able to predict the duration of the project more accurately, even though the estimates for the duration of the activities have a lot of variability. The project manager should use which method to more accurately predict the project completion date?
68. The project manager will use the PERT method of scheduling for the project that she is working on. Using the PERT calculation, the variance for the project is found to be 25 days and the duration of the project is found to be 169 days. What is the range of values for the project duration such that there will be at least a 95% probability that the actual project completion will fall between the high and low value of the range of values?
69. Of the following, which is NOT a tool and technique for the 'Sequence Activities' process?
70. Which of the following represents a progressive elaboration planning technique where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail and future work is planned at a higher level of the WBS?
71. Which dependency or logical relationship of Activity-On-Node is depicted when we say - The completion of the successor activity depends upon the completion of the predecessor activity
72. Which is the output from the 'Estimate Activity Resources'?
73. For a project with the following data, evaluate the project's burn rate : PV = $750,000, EV = $750,000 and AC = $900,000
74. Post-mortem analysis after scheduled finish date of a project shows a CPI of 0.8 and an SPI of 1.25. What is a plausible explanation for that?
75. Which of the following about Budgets is not true,
76. What does a CPI value of greater than 1 indicate?
77. During the status review meeting with the Top management, John, the project manager presents the S-curve for his project. The Index values for Cost and Schedule are 1.2 and 0.8 respectively. Which of the following is true for John's project?
78. A budgetary estimate should be accurate to what degree?
79. Which of the following statements is MOST true?
80. Which of the following is the cost estimate technique that involves developing detailed estimates at the work package level of the WBS, thereafter rolling them up to derive the project's total cost?
81. Which of the following statements is MOST true regarding Cost Baselines?
82. Tools and Techniques for 'Control Costs' process includes all of the following except -
83. A project was estimated to cost $1.5M and scheduled to last 6 months. After three months, the earned value analysis shows the following - EV = $650,000, PV = $750,000, AC = $800,000. What is the Schedule Variance?
84. To distinguish top down estimates from bottom up estimates, it would be correct to say that the bottom up estimate would be:
85. Which of the following mechanisms or processes is adopted to validate that the work is done to the customer satisfaction/requirement even before you present it to the customer?
86. The Upper Control Limit (UCL) and Lower control limit (LCL) on a typical control chart indicate what?
87. Which of the following is the LEAST true?
88. You have discovered a problem and are trying to determine the cause. The process whereby you identify the variables that have the most influence on the project by holding all the variables constant and changing one at a time is called:
89. The totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs is the definition for:
90. One of the fundamental tenets of quality management is that quality:
91. A category or rank given to products that have the same functional use but different technical characteristics is called the product's:
92. In a manufacturing process that is being controlled by control charts, there are variables occurring that will affect the process output. Variations in the process that are considered to be normal process variables are called:
93. All of the following are characteristics of a flowchart, except-
94. Which of the following best represents the term - Cost of Quality?
95. A responsibility assignment matrix ___________________________
96. Herzberg divided motivation factors into two classes: satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Examples of satisfiers are:
97. The skill of listening involves more than just hearing the sounds. One of the characteristics of a good listener is that he or she:
98. Which conflict resolution technique should be used when the deadline is critical and tasks are at risk of slipping?
99. You are a team member for the project to develop the resource management system that looks into Recruitment, Attendance, Leave Management, Appraisal and Employee Exit. The project has been assigned a budget of $3 Million that is not flexible. This is an example of,
100. Your project manager has decided on the ideal project management team and sketched out an informal plan to begin recruiting. He has also decided that it will be best to lease temporary office space, to serve as project headquarters for the team. Establishing an office facility like this for the team to work in close proximity is an example of what?
101. Which of the following is NOT a tool and technique for the 'Acquire Project Team' process?
102. Team development will be MOST difficult to achieve under which of the following conditions?
103. The five stages of development of teams is represented by -
104. Which of the following is NOT an input to the 'Develop Human Resource Plan'?
105. Which of the following is TRUE about Progress Reports, a report that informs the stakeholders about the progress of the project?
106. The three principal interests in maintaining good document control are:
107. Your project manager wants to handle communications well in his project. In order to do this he has chosen to write a communications plan. Of the items listed below, which one is not part of the communications plan?
108. Which of the following techniques allows for the participants to be anonymous?
109. In the communications model, communications between the sender and the receiver often are affected by communications barriers. These include all of the following except:
110. Formal written communication with the customer is required when :
111. When you want to report on the actual project results vs. planned results, you use?
112. The Power /interest grid groups the stakeholders based on -
113. Which of the following is NOT an input to the 'Plan Communications' process?
114. You are attending the status meeting along with 7 other project team members and the project manager. How many communication channels are available in the status meeting?
115. Which of the following statement is NOT true about Risks?
116. Two vendors offer to sell similar electronic components, which are integrated at the vendor's site. To avoid risk while evaluating the bids, the project manager views such items as the vendors'?
117. Which of the following techniques is used to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management?
118. Upon evaluation, a newly appointed project manager identifies that the XYZ project has many risks with high-risk impact scores, but has an overall low risk score. How is this possible?
119. You are currently in the planning process and have identified the risks associated with this project and are ready for the next step. What is the next step?
120. Sensitivity analysis is one of the tools involved in performing quantitative risk analysis. What are the advantages of using sensitivity analysis?
121. A project of $1.5 million has an adverse event that has the probability of 60% of occurrence and a potential loss of $25,000. This represents an expected negative value of:
122. After reviewing the detailed analysis of a risk associated with a particular project activity, your Project Manager along with the team decides to respond to the risk by purchasing insurance. This could be an example of?
123. The sponsor has asked the Project Manager to ensure that sufficient amount of management reserve is available for his project. What does the Project Manager explain to the team as the primary purpose of management reserve?
124. Looking at the trend of natural disasters that have occurred in India in the past 5 years, your company is adamant to buy an insurance against earthquakes, as the other disasters do not seem prevalent in the area where the work is to be done. Which of the risk response strategies does this belong to?
125. Which of the following statements is MOST incorrect?
126. Which of the following statements is MOST true?
127. Tools and Techniques for Quantitative Risk Analysis are all of the following EXCEPT,
128. The recycling project manager has determined that the risks associated with handling certain hazardous chemicals are too high. He has decided to allow an outside company that specializes in handling hazardous materials to complete this portion of the project, and so has outsourced the handling of the chemicals to an experienced contractor. Which of the following is it an example of?
129. As part of risk identification, you are tasked with using a technique called SWOT. Which of the following describes SWOT?
130. As part of planning, you are identifying risks and impacts of risk on your project. Chris, a project team member, is confused by what risk means. Your explanation is that a risk is a (an) ___________________ occurrence of event that can affect the project for good or bad.:
131. Which is not an example of a correctly handled Contract closure procedure?
132. A project manager makes a narrative description of the work that must be done for her project. This is called a
133. A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product, service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it, is called as -
134. The Project Management Head intends to hand over an infrastructure project to Tom, the project manager. But within the senior management of the organization, there are varied views about this project; some senior management people in the organization are against taking up the project because they feel that it is better to buy the same product from an outside source while, others feel that building the product in-house is a better option. Which of the following tools will help Tom decide whether the product should be purchased or developed in-house?
135. The primary advantage of a fixed price contract with the vendor is:
136. Which type of contract would your Project Manager NOT want to use when he does not have enough staff in the financial department to audit invoices,
137. Your colleague, Shelly has recently been promoted as the Project Manager for an Infrastructure project. She is in the process of procurement of material for his project. Since you have been involved in procurement activities with your project manager, Shelly needs assistance in identifying the contract type where the seller's profit is limited?
138. Legal contractual agreements between two or more entities to form a partnership or joint venture , or some other agreement between the parties is known as,
139. Which is NOT an output from the 'Plan Procurements' process?
140. Which of the following is a tool and technique for the 'Control Procurements'?
141. Which of the following is a tool and technique used in manage stakeholder engagements process?
142. An important stakeholder in a project is at an 'unaware' state at present, i.e. he does not know what is going on in a project. You reckon that his support could be very important. Which of the following is the BEST way to get him to a 'supportive' state?
143. Which of the following is an input to the plan stakeholder management process?
144. Which of the following is a tool to assess the current and desired state of engagement of a stakeholder on the project?
145. What is the best way to manage stakeholders which are low on power and interest?
146. Which of the following should you be most concerned about, during stakeholder analysis?
147. Stakeholder management involves all of the following EXCEPT:
148. Which of the following may NOT be a stakeholder to a project?
149. During stakeholder analysis, the project manager and team may use many different models to classify stakeholders. The model that helps to analyze a stakeholder's ability to impose his or her will or power and influence the need for immediate attention from the project team along with the legitimacy of the stakeholder's involvement is the:
150. An automotive oil change station was receiving complaints that their service took too long. A coffee machine and television were installed in the waiting room and the complaints went down. This is an example of:


  • What are the requirements to take this CAPM practice test?

    There are no defined requirements to take the CAPM exam simulator.

  • Will the Practice Tests be updated frequently?

    Yes. Simplilearn’s practice tests are up-to-date, which in turn helps the candidates to get the latest information always.

  • Will this CAPM exam simulator help in clearing the actual CAPM certification exam?

    Yes. This free CAPM practice test is a representation of the actual CAPM exam questions. Answering this test does not guarantee you clear the exam, but it makes the whole process a lot easier for you.

  • What is included in this CAPM exam prep?

    In this CAPM test, you will have 150 MCQs that can be attempted multiple times for free. The test can be paused and resumed at a later period.

  • What is the CAPM exam prep practice test?

    The CAPM practice test is free of cost and is a simulation of the CAPM exam. The CAPM exam simulator consists of 150 MCQs. The CAPM exam questions are representative of the actual CAPM exam. This CAPM exam prep is ideal for professionals who want to test their skills in core project management philosophies.

  • Can I retake this CAPM Practice Test?

    Yes. The CAPM sample questions can be attempted several times as and when required by requirements. However, Simplilearn suggests that you take the practice test when you are well prepared in order to get the optimal experience.

  • Who can take up this CAPM practice exam?

    The CAPM exam simulator is recommended for project associates and any professional who wants to gain proficiency in the growing field of project management.

  • Are these the CAPM sample questions same as the real CAPM exam questions?

    The CAPM test questions are indicative of the CAPM real exam questions.

  • What will I learn from this CAPM exam prep?

    The CAPM practice test contains 150 multiple choice questions that must be answered in a duration of 180 minutes. This CAPM test helps candidates identify the areas of project management they are weak in and need to work.

  • I didn’t do well on this practice test. What should I do now?

    The practice test can be attempted any number of times as desired by the candidate. If the candidate was unable to clear the test in the first attempt, they can learn more about CAPM from our CAPM Certification Course and then retake the exam after preparing well.

  • Disclaimer
  • PMP, PMI, PMBOK, CAPM, PgMP, PfMP, ACP, PBA, RMP, SP, and OPM3 are registered marks of the Project Management Institute, Inc.