Free PMP® Exam Prep Practice Test
Attempt PMP® practice test questions and test your skills. This free PMP® exam prep material simulates the actual certification exam.
- 200 Questions,
- 240 Minutes
Attempt PMP® practice test questions and test your skills. This free PMP® exam prep material simulates the actual certification exam.
PMP® certification is the global gold standard of project management, and is a project management course based on PMBOK® Guide - Fi ...
1. This is a FREE test and can be attempted multiple times. But it is recommended to take the test when you are ready for best practice experience.
2. Test Duration: 240 Minutes
3. Number of questions: 200 Multiple Choice Questions
4. Each question has multiple options out of which one or more may be correct
5. You can pause the test in between and you are allowed to re-take the test later. Your test will resume from where you left, but the test time will be reduced by the amount of time you’hv taken in the previous attempt.
All test progress will be lost in case you close the browser without finishing the test. Please finish the test to access your results.
Answer (a) Project Coordinator. Project Manager in a weak matrix organization typically performs the coordination role.
Answer (b) A product can spawn a single project in its life. Product lifecycle management (PLM) is the process of managing the entire lifecycle of a product from its conception, through design and manufacture, to service and disposal. PLM integrates people, data, processes, and business systems to provide a product information backbone for companies. The five stages of each product lifecycle are product development, introduction, growth, maturity, and decline. A product can spawn or require many projects over its life.
Answer (a) The charter is important because it formally authorizes a project. The Project Manager must do whatever she can to get the charter issued.
Answer (a) A PMO is supposed to be a center of excellence for project management in an organization.
Answer (b) Portfolio Manager. Portfolio refers to a collection of projects or programs grouped together to facilitate effective management to meet strategic business objectives and the person managing it is called a portfolio Manager. Portfolio management describes methods for analyzing and collectively managing a group of current or proposed projects based on numerous key characteristics like business objectives, technical strategy goal etc.
Answer (b) The Project sponsor is in the develop project charter process, in project integration management and using statement of work to understand the product requirements and descriptions. The output of this process is a project charter, which once approved formally initiates the project. A project charter documents high-level project descriptions and business needs of the project, along with a current understanding of the customer's needs, risks, name of the sponsor, and so on.
Answer (d) Giving extras to stakeholders to win them over amounts to gold plating or (even worse) unethical practices, so it is not recommended.
Answer (b) The entire project team is usually not available during initiation, therefore this is the likely answer.
Answer (b). As per the new examination content outline, project manager will not develop the project charter. He will participate in developing the project charter.
Answer (a) According to PMI's classification, the Project Manager should define the Key deliverables of the project based on the business and compliance requirements in order to meet the customer's project expectations.
Answer (c) Expert judgment is a tool and technique for the 'identify stakeholders' process and is not an input.
Answer (d) An iterative relationship is where one phase is planned at any given time and the planning for the next is carried out as work progresses on the current phase or deliverable.
Answer (d) Initiating process group includes the develop project charter and identify stakeholders process. Option(a) specifies the risk involvement, option(b) specifies probability of success.
Answer (d) Project Charter provides the high-level project description and product characteristics. It authorizes the project and provides the Project Manager the authority to assign organization resources.
Answer (a) Product lifecycle consists of generally sequential, non-overlapping product phases determined by the manufacturing and control need of the organization. For more details on product lifecycle, refer to PMBOK 5th edition PN 38.
Answer (d) The question has a negative connotation. The specific project will not influence the constraints on which the Project Manager needs to focus. Refer PN 5 of PMBOK 5th Edition.
Answer (a) It is during the initiating process group that we identify and document high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints in order to identify project limitations and thereafter propose an implementation approach.
Answer (d) Identifying and developing the organization's methodology, administrative practices, and rules. The PMO's role is to identify and develop the project management methodology, best practices, and standards.
Answer (b) Ability to influence the final characteristics of the product without impacting the cost is highest at the start. Cost and staffing levels are low at the start. Uncertainty is greatest at the start of the project. Stakeholder influences are greatest at the start of the project and decrease over the life of the project.
Answer (b) Sequential relationship. A sequential relationship is the stage where a phase can only start once the previous phase is complete. The step-by-step nature of the approach reduces uncertainty but may eliminate options for reducing the schedule.
Answer (b) This statement is wrong as stakeholders can exert influence over the project, its deliverables, and team members.
Answer (a) Lessons learned are part of the organizational process assets.
Answer (c) Project Officer who works for XYZ. Since this person is the sponsor, he is responsible for approving and signing the charter.
Answer (c) The issue requires functional expertise and hence the functional Managers are best able to assist in this matter.
Answer (d) These are parts of the corporate knowledge base in organizational process assets. The others are examples of enterprise and environmental factors. It refers to both internal and external environmental factors that surround or influence project success either positively or negatively. To go through a list of examples for enterprise and environmental factors refer to PMBOK 5th edition Introduction PN 28.
Answer (c) Many times even a fundamentally functional organization may create a special project team to handle a critical project. This may have many characteristics of a project team in a projectized organization. The team may include full-time staff from different functional departments, may develop its own set of operating procedures, and may operate outside the standard, formalized reporting structure.
Answer (b) The planning process group consists of processes performed to establish the total scope of the effort, define the objectives, and develop the course of action required to attain those objectives. For this purpose, a Project Manager should include relevant stakeholders and explore all the aspects of scope, cost, time, risk, quality, etc. The result of this planning process group is the project management plan.
Answer (a) The Project Manager has created a WBS, a WBS dictionary, and an activity list in the planning stage. The next step would be to create a network diagram for the project. Quality standards and metrics can be identified once project schedule and budget are determined. Option C, is done as part of project initiation and is completed much earlier. Option D, is done in the executing stage of the project.
Answer (c) Since nothing is given about the organization structure, we have to assume that it is a matrix or functional organization, where the resources are owned by the functional Managers and they would provide and identify these resources.
Answer (a) The role of a Project Manager is the combination of all the above options, but the one that is most critical to the project's success is that of an Integrator. As described in the question, a Project Manager is expected to integrate the project management processes and coordinate the process phases through the project management cycle to ensure that all areas of the project come together to successfully deliver the project. Integration involves pulling together all aspects of project management including scope, cost, schedule, quality, and communication in addition to working with other departments such as Legal, Human Resources, Training, Contract Administration, and Information Technology.
Answer (c) The results of process tailoring by the project team are captured in the project management plan, along with all the other information required by the stakeholder.
Answer (d) The kick off meeting which is done in the beginning of the project and then before starting each new project phase has four main objectives: a) Publicly state the beginning of the project; b) Outline the project goals as well as the individual roles and responsibilities of team members; c) Clarify the expectations of all parties; d) Create a commitment by all those who influence the project's outcome.
Answer (c) The answer to this question can be reached by process of elimination. Since the project is already initiated and is in the planning stage Option A, and (d) can't be true. There is no evidence to believe Option B, and the most probable explanation could be failure to support project by sponsor. The term sponsor, by definition, suggests a financial responsibility. This sponsor is thought to 'own' the project and is considered responsible for ensuring its success. He/she is also typically the one who proposes the project in the first place; whose business unit reaps its benefits.
Answer (a) If you got confused with project scope, remember that the above statements describe the features, functions, and requirements which are part of defining product scope. To differentiate project scope from product scope read through the definition of each. Product scope: the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result. Project scope: the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions. The product scope describes the thing or service that will exist as a result of your project. The project scope, on the other hand, describes all of the work to create the product scope. It includes all of the work, and only the required work, to complete the project deliverable. Note: completion of project scope is measured against the project management plan, project scope statement and its associated Work Breakdown Structure (WBS ), WBS dictionary, and scope baseline. Completion of product scope is measured against product features or requirements.
Answer (c) The Project Manager is in the process of 'collect requirements' which has the output - requirements documentation. This document describes how individual requirements meet the business need for the project. It is important that the requirements documented are unambiguous (measurable and testable), traceable, and acceptable to key stakeholders. Option A, stakeholder register is only a list of stakeholders in the project, whereas Option B, stakeholder management strategy describes the strategy to manage stakeholder expectations. Option D, issue log is a document to capture project issues.
Answer (b) Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and WBS dictionary with the team. The Project Manager wants the team to take ownership, as well as understand how their individual project activities affect the overall project deliverable (the big picture). He also wants the team to develop bonding. All these objectives are met when the team gets involved in creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and WBS dictionary. Option A, may not be always possible due to physical constraints in the project. Option D, has limited utility but Option B, is the best choice as it fulfills multiple project objectives.
Answer (a) The best option is to compress the project schedule because the critical path activities can be delayed thus resulting in a negative float. In this case, the Project Manager should use a schedule compression technique such as fast tracking or crashing.
Answer (c) Use this approved schedule as a baseline and start tracking the project. The Project Manager is in the process 'develop schedule'. Since he has already derived an approved project schedule, it implies Option A,,(b) and (d) are already completed as part of the processes estimate activity resources, develop schedule, and sequence activities. The next step would be to treat this estimate as a schedule baseline and start tracking the project as part of the process 'control schedule'.
Answer (a) 61.67 +/- 8.00 PERT allows the estimator to include three estimates: optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely, given by the equation: Expected Duration = [P + 4(ML) + O]/6 and range is +/- standard deviation = (P-O)/6, where P is the pessimistic estimate, ML is the most likely estimate, and O is the optimistic estimate. Using this method the correct answers comes out to be 61.67 days and Range (+/-Standard Deviation) as 8.00.
Answer (c) Float for an activity can be calculated using any of the two formula (i.e. Float = LS-ES or LF-EF). In this case, float = 5-3 or 10- 8 or 2 days. Remember, float or slack is the amount of time a task in a project network can be delayed without causing a delay to subsequent tasks (free float) or the project completion date (total float).
Answer (c) This is an example of a start-to-start dependency. It means that B can't start before A starts or in another words Activity B can start after Activity A has started.
Answer (d) Communications management plan contains details of how the communication needs of the project's stakeholders will be met.
Answer (a) Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration where work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail and future work is planned at a higher level of the Work Breakdown Structure. Therefore, work can exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project lifecycle. As more information is known about upcoming events, the higher level work packages can be decomposed further. Option B, templates which are usually standardized would not be a very helpful tool for evolving requirements. Option C, and (d) are not recognized tools and techniques of project time management.
Answer (a) Expected time = (O + 4M + P)/6 = 16
Answer (c) The formula for variance = [( Pessimistic-Optimistic)/6]squared. The answer is 4.
Answer (b) Critical path activities do not have any float. If any activity on the critical path is delayed, the completion of the project will be delayed by an equal amount. To determine the critical path, we have to add the amount of time estimated for the duration of each activity to the previous activity.
Answer (c) Lifecycle costing provides the lowest long term cost of ownership and should be used as a management decision tool. Although project cost management is primarily concerned with the cost of the resources needed to complete the project (Option A, partly true), it should also consider the effect of project decisions on the subsequent recurring cost of using, maintaining, and supporting the project. Hence, lifecycle cost analysis can be used to assist management in the decision-making process. Remember, lifecycle costing looks at the entire cost of the product (not just the cost of project).
Answer (d) Value analysis is also referred to as 'value management' or 'value methodology' (VM), and 'value analysis' (VA). It requires the systematic approach to identify project functions and assign values to those functions to get the functions at lowest overall cost without loss of performance.
Answer (c) Funding limit reconciliation is one of the techniques used in the Determine budget process. See Page 208 of the PMBOK 5th edition.
Answer (b) The total funds required in the project are those included in cost baseline, plus management reserve if any. Remember, the cost baseline includes contingency reserves because the cost baseline will include projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities. Please refer to PMBOK 5th edition Project Cost Management PN 206 for more details.
Answer (d) This is the definitive range derived during the latter part of the project when project information is available in sufficient detail. The estimates could become more refined to a range of -5 percent to +10 percent from the actual. This estimate is usually derived using the bottoms up estimation technique.
Answer (c) Benchmarking is a management tool through which a plan for evaluation, measurement, and improvement is implemented. It is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, and/or quality to another that is widely considered to be an industry standard benchmark or best practice. The objective of Benchmarking is: (1) to determine what and where improvements are called for; (2) how other firms achieve their high performance levels; (3) use this information to improve the firm's performance. Option D, process analysis is a tool and technique of the quality assurance process which involves following steps in the quality improvement plan to identify needed improvements. Please refer PMBOK 5th edition Project Quality Management PN 239 for more details.
Answer (a) Quality metrics are determined as an output to the process plan quality, along with tolerance limits for each of them. A metric would give the actual value or the measurement of a project or product attribute, whereas a tolerance defines the allowable variations on the metrics. The selection of these metrics in a project would heavily depend on the type of the project and the objective of collecting the metrics.
Answer (c) While Option B, describes how the project management team will implement the quality policy of their organization; the process improvement plan is more focused on enhancing the value of the process in a project. It includes determining process boundaries, process metrics, targets for improved performances, etc. Please refer PMBOK 5th edition Project Quality Management PN 241 for more details.
Answer (b) What the Project Manager is trying to do is essentially look at the industry benchmark and make sure that the product is in line with it. This is the benchmarking technique.
Answer (c) Internal failure cost (including failure found by the project internally like rework and scrap) are not part of the cost of conformance. All the failure costs (including external failure costs) are referred to as the cost of poor quality. Remember, the cost of conformance denotes the money spent during the project to avoid failures. Please refer PMBOK 5th edition Project Quality Management PN 235 for more details.
Answer (c) Resource leveling is required whenever individual bars in the Resource Histogram extend beyond the maximum allowed hours. Resource leveling can be done by either adding more resources or modifying the schedule. Option A, Reducing scope or (b) extending working hours would be detrimental to the project's success and is not recommended here. Option D, schedule compression which can be done through either crashing or fast tracking wouldn't necessarily be helpful. Since specific bars are showing an overflow, it can be best tackled using resource leveling.
Answer (a) According to Maslow, there are five levels of human needs from bottom to top. They are: physiological, safety, social, esteem, self-actualization. Option D, Hygiene factors are part of Herzberg's theory.
Answer (b) The key person responsible for communicating information on the project may not be available through the entire project. A communication constraint is usually derived from specific legislation or regulation (Option A), organizational policies (Option C), or a project constraint (Option D) which limits the project's options during communication management. However, (Option B) is an uncertain event or risk in the project which needs to be addressed through risk management.
Answer (b) Someone who doesn't want to take risks is called risk averse and the Project Manager seems to be part of such an organization. Option C, risk neutral describes a person/or an organization which is indifferent to the risk and Option A, risk seeker suggests an aptitude to take risks with an opportunity for higher returns. Option D, risk mitigation is a risk response strategy and is an invalid choice.
Answer (c) Monte Carlo Simulations are typically associated with the quantitative risk analysis process. It generates the output as a range instead of a fixed value and shows how likely the output value is to occur in the range.
Answer (b) Lead means that the successor activity can start in advance of the predecessor activity.
Answer (b) Parametric estimating is an estimation technique which utilizes the statistical relationship that exists between a series of historical data and a particular delineated list of other variables. Some examples of these variables include square footage in a construction project, the number of lines or code that exist in a software application, and other similar variables. This information is then implemented for the purpose of calculating and demonstrating an estimate for the activity parameters.
Answer (d) Cost risk lies with the seller in a Fixed price contract.
Answer (b) A RFP requests for a detailed proposal.